Purpose: To investigate ocular manifestation of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) in HIV patients after starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) and its relationship to T cell immunity. Methods: HIV patients with ocular IRIS after HAART were retrospectively reviewed. Clinical presentations with previous opportunistic infection, duration from initiation of HAART to IRIS, blood CD4+, CD8+ T cell count, and HIV RNA copies before HAART and at IRIS were analyzed. Results: Among 19 patients (27 eyes) included, the most common previous opportunistic infection was cytomegalovirus (17 patients, 89.5%) followed by tuberculosis choroiditis (2 patients, 10.5%). The clinical manifestations included vitritis (20 eyes, 74.0%), retinitis (14 eyes, 51.9%), and anterior uveitis (5 eyes, 18.5%). The median duration from initiation of HAART to IRIS was 70 days. CD4+ T cell count before HAART increased at IRIS (p < 0.001). CD8+ T cell count before HAART was negatively correlated with duration from HAART to IRIS (p < 0.001). The cutoff value of CD8+ T cell count for discerning early or late onset of ocular IRIS was 258/mm3 (p = 0.001). When divided into two groups by CD8+ T cell count of 258/mm3, 90% patients with CD8+ T cell count higher than 258/mm3 before HAART developed ocular IRIS within 70 days. Conclusions There was a negative relationship between CD8+ T cell count before HAART and duration from HAART to ocular IRIS. Ocular IRIS with higher CD8+ T cell count before HAART developed earlier after HAART initiation compared to those with lower CD8+ T cell count.

Objective: To assess the performance of novel qualitative diagnostic criteria using dynamic contrast-enhanced (DCE) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to identify the pathologic complete response (pCR) of primary tumors in esophageal cancer after neoadjuvant chemoradiation (nCRT). Materials and Methods: Patients who underwent nCRT, subsequent MRI, positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT), endoscopy, or esophagectomy for esophageal cancer between October 2021 and October 2023 were retrospectively analyzed. The DCE-MRI response of primary tumors was interpreted using five grades by thoracic radiologists as follows: G1 (compatible with CR), G2 (probable CR), G3 (probable partial response [PR]), G4 (compatible with PR), and G5 (stable or progressive disease). The performances of MRI, PET/CT, endoscopy, and their combinations in diagnosing pCR in primary tumors were calculated. Results: A total of 52 patients (male:female, 46:6; age, 61.2 ± 8.0 years) were included. Surgical specimens revealed pCR (ypT0) in 34 patients. G1 as the MRI criterion for pCR of primary tumors yielded a positive predictive value (PPV), specificity of 100% (18/18), and low sensitivity (23.5% [8/34]). Combining G1 and G2 as the MRI criteria increased the sensitivity to 73.5% (25/34), with a specificity of 88.9% (16/18), accuracy of 78.8% (41/52), and PPV of 92.6% (25/27). Adding the DCEMRI results (G1-2) significantly improved accuracy for both PET/CT (from 65.4% [34/52] to 80.8% [42/52], P = 0.03) and endoscopy (from 55.8% [29/52] to 76.9% [40/52], P = 0.005), with increase in sensitivity (from 55.9% [19/34] to 82.4% [28/34] for PET/CT-based evaluation [P = 0.008] and from 47.1% [16/34] to 82.4% [28/34] for endoscopy-based evaluation [P = 0.001]). Conclusion DCE-MRI-based grading shows high diagnostic performance for identifying pCR in primary tumors, particularly in terms of PPV and specificity, and enhances response evaluation when combined with PET/CT and endoscopy.

Purpose: To investigate ocular manifestation of immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS) in HIV patients after starting highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) and its relationship to T cell immunity. Methods: HIV patients with ocular IRIS after HAART were retrospectively reviewed. Clinical presentations with previous opportunistic infection, duration from initiation of HAART to IRIS, blood CD4+, CD8+ T cell count, and HIV RNA copies before HAART and at IRIS were analyzed. Results: Among 19 patients (27 eyes) included, the most common previous opportunistic infection was cytomegalovirus (17 patients, 89.5%) followed by tuberculosis choroiditis (2 patients, 10.5%). The clinical manifestations included vitritis (20 eyes, 74.0%), retinitis (14 eyes, 51.9%), and anterior uveitis (5 eyes, 18.5%). The median duration from initiation of HAART to IRIS was 70 days. CD4+ T cell count before HAART increased at IRIS (p < 0.001). CD8+ T cell count before HAART was negatively correlated with duration from HAART to IRIS (p < 0.001). The cutoff value of CD8+ T cell count for discerning early or late onset of ocular IRIS was 258/mm3 (p = 0.001). When divided into two groups by CD8+ T cell count of 258/mm3, 90% patients with CD8+ T cell count higher than 258/mm3 before HAART developed ocular IRIS within 70 days. Conclusions There was a negative relationship between CD8+ T cell count before HAART and duration from HAART to ocular IRIS. Ocular IRIS with higher CD8+ T cell count before HAART developed earlier after HAART initiation compared to those with lower CD8+ T cell count.

Objective: To assess the performance of novel qualitative diagnostic criteria using dynamic contrast-enhanced (DCE) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to identify the pathologic complete response (pCR) of primary tumors in esophageal cancer after neoadjuvant chemoradiation (nCRT). Materials and Methods: Patients who underwent nCRT, subsequent MRI, positron emission tomography/computed tomography (PET/CT), endoscopy, or esophagectomy for esophageal cancer between October 2021 and October 2023 were retrospectively analyzed. The DCE-MRI response of primary tumors was interpreted using five grades by thoracic radiologists as follows: G1 (compatible with CR), G2 (probable CR), G3 (probable partial response [PR]), G4 (compatible with PR), and G5 (stable or progressive disease). The performances of MRI, PET/CT, endoscopy, and their combinations in diagnosing pCR in primary tumors were calculated. Results: A total of 52 patients (male:female, 46:6; age, 61.2 ± 8.0 years) were included. Surgical specimens revealed pCR (ypT0) in 34 patients. G1 as the MRI criterion for pCR of primary tumors yielded a positive predictive value (PPV), specificity of 100% (18/18), and low sensitivity (23.5% [8/34]). Combining G1 and G2 as the MRI criteria increased the sensitivity to 73.5% (25/34), with a specificity of 88.9% (16/18), accuracy of 78.8% (41/52), and PPV of 92.6% (25/27). Adding the DCEMRI results (G1-2) significantly improved accuracy for both PET/CT (from 65.4% [34/52] to 80.8% [42/52], P = 0.03) and endoscopy (from 55.8% [29/52] to 76.9% [40/52], P = 0.005), with increase in sensitivity (from 55.9% [19/34] to 82.4% [28/34] for PET/CT-based evaluation [P = 0.008] and from 47.1% [16/34] to 82.4% [28/34] for endoscopy-based evaluation [P = 0.001]). Conclusion DCE-MRI-based grading shows high diagnostic performance for identifying pCR in primary tumors, particularly in terms of PPV and specificity, and enhances response evaluation when combined with PET/CT and endoscopy.

As many countries implement different programs aimed at eliminating malaria, attention should be given to asymptomatic carriers that may interrupt the progress. This was a community-based cross-sectional study conducted in Tanzania from December 2022 to July 2023 within 4 villages from each of the 3 regions, Geita and Kigoma, which are high malaria transmission, and Arusha, which is low transmission. Malaria was diagnosed in asymptomatic individuals aged 1 year and older using the malaria rapid diagnostic test and light microscope. A total of 2,365 of 3,489 (67.9%) participants were enrolled from high-transmission villages. The overall prevalence was 25.5% and 15.8% by malaria rapid diagnostic test and light microscope, respectively. Using the respective tools, the prevalence was significantly higher at 35.6% (confidence interval (CI)=23.6–49.9) and 23.1% (CI=16.2–35.1) in the high-transmission regions (Geita and Kigoma) compared with 2.9% (CI=1.1–3.5) and 1.1% (CI=0.7–1.8) in the low-transmission region (Arusha). Children younger than 15 years and males accounted for the greatest proportion of infections. In the study area, the prevalence of asymptomatic cases was higher than that of reported symptomatic cases in health facilities. We hypothesize that these parasite reservoirs may contribute to the persistence of malaria in the country. Therefore, to achieve comprehensive malaria control in the country, the surveillance and screening of asymptomatic malaria cases are vital.

This review classifies and summarizes the major shoulder diseases affecting older adults, focusing on rotator cuff disease, frozen shoulder, osteoarthritis, and shoulder instability. It explores each condition's pathophysiology, risk factors, clinical presentation, diagnostic approaches, and treatment strategies to guide clinicians in optimizing patient outcomes and enhancing quality of life. Age-related degenerative changes, comorbidities, and distinct etiological factors contribute to the presentation of shoulder disorders in older adults. Rotator cuff disease ranges from tendinopathy to full-thickness tears and is influenced by genetic predispositions, inflammatory cytokines, and muscle quality. Frozen shoulder results from fibroproliferative changes in the capsule, leading to significant pain and restricted motion. Osteoarthritis involves cartilage degeneration and bony remodeling, often necessitating surgical interventions such as arthroplasty. Shoulder instability, though less frequent, is complicated by associated injuries like rotator cuff tears and fractures, requiring tailored management strategies. Advances in imaging techniques, biologic treatments, and surgical procedures, particularly arthroscopic and arthroplasty options, have improved diagnostic accuracy and therapeutic outcomes. A thorough classification of shoulder diseases in older adult patients highlights the complexity of managing these conditions. Effective treatment requires individualized approaches that integrate conservative measures with emerging biologic or surgical therapies. Future research should focus on targeted interventions, standardized diagnostic criteria, and multidisciplinary collaboration to minimize disability, optimize function, and improve overall quality of life in this growing patient population. Multimodal strategies, including patient education, structured rehabilitation, and psychosocial support, further enhance long-term adherence and outcomes. Ongoing vigilance for comorbidities, such as osteoporosis or metabolic disorders, is necessary for comprehensive care.

Background/Aims: Elevated troponin levels predict in-hospital mortality and influence decisions regarding thrombolytic therapy in patients with acute pulmonary embolism (PE). However, the usefulness of high-sensitivity troponin T (hsTnT) regarding PE remains uncertain. We aimed to establish the optimal cut-off level and compare its performance for precise risk stratification. Methods: 374 patients diagnosed with acute PE were reviewed. PE-related adverse outcomes, a composite of PE-related deaths, cardiopulmonary resuscitation incidents, systolic blood pressure < 90 mmHg, and all-cause mortality within 30 days were evaluated. The optimal hsTnT cut-off for all-cause mortality, and the net reclassification index (NRI) was used to assess the incremental value in risk stratification. Results: Among 343 normotensive patients, 17 (5.0%) experienced all-cause mortality, while 40 (10.7%) had PE-related adverse outcomes. An optimal hsTnT cut-off value of 60 ng/L for all-cause mortality (AUC 0.74, 95% CI 0.61–0.85, p < 0.001) was identified, which was significantly associated with PE-related adverse outcomes (OR 4.07, 95% CI 2.06–8.06, p < 0.001). Patients with hsTnT ≥ 60 ng/L were older, hypotensive, had higher creatinine levels, and right ventricular dysfunction signs. Combining hsTnT ≥ 60 ng/L with simplified pulmonary embolism severity index ≥1 provided additional prognostic information. Reclassification analysis showed a significant shift in risk categories, with an NRI of 1.016 ± 0.201 (p < 0.001). Conclusions We refined troponin’s predictive value in patients with acute PE, proposing a new cut-off value of hsTnT ≥ 60 ng/L. Validation through large-scale studies is essential to offer clinically useful guidance for managing patient population.

Background/Aims: Portal vein thrombosis (PVT) frequently occurs in patients with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), particularly when influenced by factors such as abdominal infections, IBD flare-ups, or surgical procedures. The implications of PVT range from immediate issues such as intestinal ischemia to long-term concerns including portal hypertension and its complications. However, there is a notable gap in comprehensive studies on PVT in IBD, especially with the increasing incidence of IBD in Asia. This research aimed to evaluate the clinical features and outcomes of PVT in patients with IBD at a leading hospital in South Korea. Methods: This retrospective analysis reviewed adult patients diagnosed with both IBD and PVT from 1989 to 2021 at a renowned South Korean medical center. The study focused on patient characteristics, specifics of PVT, administered treatments, and outcomes, all confirmed through enhanced CT scans. Results: A total of 78 patients met the study’s criteria. Notably, only 20.5% (16/78) were treated with oral anticoagulants; however, a vast majority (96.2%; 75/78) achieved complete radiographic resolution (CRR). When comparing patients receiving anticoagulants to those who did not, a significant preference for anticoagulant use was observed in cases where the main portal vein was affected, as opposed to just the left or right veins (p = 0.006). However, multivariable analysis indicated that neither anticoagulant use nor previous surgeries significantly impacted CRR. Conclusions Patients with IBD and PVT generally had favorable outcomes, regardless of anticoagulant use.

Purpose: Several types of dermal fillers have been recently introduced and used for penile augmentation (PA). However, few studies have compared outcomes after the injection of different fillers. This study aimed to compare the clinical outcomes of hyaluronic acid (HLA), polylactic acid (PLA), and polymethyl methacrylate (PMA) filler injections, which are the most commonly used for aesthetic purposes. Materials and Methods: This prospective study was conducted for 24 weeks after a filler injection by a surgeon between March 2017 and December 2021. Healthy adult men complaining of small penis were enrolled. Penile girth, satisfaction, and injection-associated adverse events (AEs) were assessed at baseline and 4, 12, and 24 weeks after injection. Results: Of the 301 men who received filler injections, 125, 134, and 42 received HLA, PLA, and PMA fillers, respectively. The augmentation effect was in the order of PMA, HLA, and PLA, respectively, at 24 weeks (PMA vs. HLA, p<0.001; HLA vs. PLA, p=0.006). Satisfaction levels increased significantly at 24 weeks in all groups (each with p<0.001). However, the increase in satisfaction levels was smaller in the PMA group (PMA vs. HLA or PLA, p<0.05, for both penile appearance and sexual life). No serious or systemic AEs were recorded. Filler injection-associated local AEs in the HLA, PLA, and PMA groups occurred in 9 (7.2%), 16 (11.9%), and 6 (14.3%) men, respectively. There was no significant difference in AEs among the groups (p=0.299). Conclusions The augmentative effect was greater in the PMA group than in the HLA and PLA groups, whereas the increase in satisfaction levels was smaller in the PMA group. Our study demonstrated the clinical course of different types of fillers and suggests that the filler type should be selected after detailed counseling considering individual characteristics and preferences.

Background: The development of frailty at hospital discharge affects the clinical outcomes in severe coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19) survivors who had no frailty before hospitalization. We aimed to describe the prevalence of new frailty using the clinical frailty scale (CFS) and evaluate its associated factors in patients with severe COVID-19 without pre-existing frailty before hospitalization. Methods: We performed a secondary analysis of clinical data from a nationwide retrospective cohort collected from 22 hospitals between January 1, 2020 and August 31, 2021. The patients were at least 19 years old and survived until discharge after admission to the intensive care unit (ICU) because of severe COVID-19. Development of new frailty was defined as a CFS score ≥5 at hospital discharge. Results: Among 669 severe COVID-19 survivors without pre-existing frailty admitted to the ICU, the mean age was 65.2±12.8 years, 62.5% were male, and 50.2% received mechanical ventilation (MV). The mean CFS score at admission was 2.4±0.9, and new frailty developed in 27.8% (186/483). In multivariate analysis, older age, cardiovascular disease, CFS score of 3–4 before hospitalization, increased C-reactive protein level, longer duration of corticosteroid treatment, and use of MV and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation were identified as factors associated with new-onset frailty. Conclusion Our study suggests that new frailty is not uncommon and is associated with diverse factors in survivors of severe COVID-19 without pre-existing frailty.