PURPOSE: The purpose of this study was to investigate the effect of hospital case volume on clinical outcomes in patients with nasopharyngeal carcinoma (NPC). MATERIALS AND METHODS: Data on 1,073 patients with cT1-4N0-3M0 NPC were collected from a multi-institutional retrospective database (KROG 11-06). All patients received definitive radiotherapy (RT) either with three-dimensional-conformal RT (3D-CRT) (n=576) or intensity-modulated RT (IMRT) (n=497). The patients were divided into two groups treated at high volume institution (HVI) (n=750) and low volume institution (LVI) (n=323), defined as patient volume ≥ 10 (median, 13; range, 10 to 18) and < 10 patients per year (median, 3; range, 2 to 6), respectively. Endpoints were overall survival (OS) and loco-regional progression-free survival (LRPFS). RESULTS: At a median follow-up of 56.7 months, the outcomes were significantly better in those treated at HVI than at LVI. For the 614 patients of propensity score-matched cohort, 5-year OS and LRPFS were consistently higher in the HVI group than in the LVI group (OS: 78.4% vs. 62.7%, p < 0.001; LRPFS: 86.2% vs. 65.8%, p < 0.001, respectively). According to RT modality, significant difference in 5-year OS was observed in patients receiving 3D-CRT (78.7% for HVI vs. 58.9% for LVI, p < 0.001) and not in those receiving IMRT (77.3% for HVI vs. 75.5% for LVI, p=0.170). CONCLUSION: A significant relationship was observed between HVI and LVI for the clinical outcomes of patients with NPC. However, the difference in outcome becomes insignificant in the IMRT era, probably due to the standardization of practice by education.
Cohort Studies ; Disease-Free Survival ; Education ; Follow-Up Studies ; Humans ; Nasopharyngeal Neoplasms ; Radiotherapy ; Radiotherapy, Intensity-Modulated ; Retrospective Studies* ; Treatment Outcome

PURPOSE: Severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs), including Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), and drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) to antiepileptic drug (AED), are rare, but result in significant morbidity and mortality. We investigated the major culprit drugs, clinical characteristics, and clinical course and outcomes of AED-induced SCARs using a nationwide registry in Korea. METHODS: A total of 161 patients with AED-induced SCARs from 28 referral hospitals were analyzed. The causative AEDs, clinical characteristics, organ involvements, details of treatment, and outcomes were evaluated. We compared the clinical and laboratory parameters between SJS/TEN and DRESS according to the leading causative drugs. We further determined risk factors for prolonged hospitalization in AED-induced SCARs. RESULTS: Carbamazepine and lamotrigine were the most common culprit drugs causing SCARs. Valproic acid and levetiracetam also emerged as the major causative agents. The disease duration and hospital stay in carbamazepine-induced SJS/TEN were shorter than those in other AEDs (P< 0.05, respectively). In younger patients, lamotrigine caused higher incidences of DRESS than other drugs (P= 0.045). Carbamazepine, the most common culprit drug for SCARs, was associated with a favorable outcome related with prolonged hospitalization in SJS (odds ratio, 0.12; 95% confidence interval, 0.02-0.63, P= 0.12), and thrombocytopenia was found to be a risk factor for prolonged hospitalization in DRESS. CONCLUSION: This was the first large-scale epidemiological study of AED-induced SCARs in Korea. Valproic acid and levetiracetam were the significant emerging AEDs causing SCARs in addition to the well-known offending AEDs such as carbamazepine and lamotrigine. Carbamazepine was associated with reduced hospitalization, but thrombocytopenia was a risk factor for prolonged hospitalization. Our results suggest that the clinical characteristics and clinical courses of AED-induced SCARs might vary according to the individual AEDs.
Anticonvulsants ; Carbamazepine ; Cicatrix ; Drug Hypersensitivity Syndrome ; Epidemiologic Studies ; Hospitalization ; Humans ; Incidence ; Korea ; Length of Stay ; Mortality ; Referral and Consultation ; Risk Factors ; Stevens-Johnson Syndrome ; Thrombocytopenia ; Valproic Acid

OBJECTIVE: To describe the clinical outcomes of frozen-thawed embryo transfer (FET) with artificial preparation of the endometrium, using a combination of estrogen (E2) and progesterone (P4) with or without a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist (GnRHa), and the modified natural cycle (MNC) with human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) trigger. METHODS: In this retrospective study, we evaluated 187 patients during 3 years (February 2012–April 2015). The patients were allocated to the following treatment groups: group A, comprising 113 patients (181 cycles) who received GnRHa+E2+P4; group B, comprising 49 patients (88 cycles) who received E2+P4; and group C, comprising 25 patients (42 cycles) who received hCG+P4. The inclusion criteria were regular menstrual cycles (length 24–35 days) and age 21–45 years. RESULTS: The primary outcome of the study — implantation rate (IR) per embryo transferred — was not statistically different among the 3 groups. Similar results were found for the IRs with fetal heartbeat per embryo transferred (68/181 [37.6%] in group A vs. 22/88 [25.0%] in group B vs. 14/42 [33.3%] in group C) and for the live birth rates (LBRs) per embryo transferred (56/181 [30.9%] in group A vs. 18/88 [20.5%] in group B vs. 11/42 [26.2%] in group C). CONCLUSION: Although the pregnancy outcomes were better in the hormone therapy with GnRHa group, hormone therapy FET with GnRHa for pituitary suppression did not result in significantly improved IRs and LBRs when compared with hormone therapy FET without GnRHa or MNC FET.
Chorionic Gonadotropin ; Embryo Transfer* ; Embryonic Structures* ; Endometrium ; Estrogens ; Female ; Gonadotropin-Releasing Hormone* ; Humans ; Infertility ; Live Birth ; Menstrual Cycle ; Pregnancy ; Pregnancy Outcome ; Progesterone ; Retrospective Studies

PURPOSE: We examined clinical and dosimetric factors as predictors of symptomatic radiation pneumonitis (RP) in lung cancer patients and evaluated the relationship between interstitial lung changes in the pre-radiotherapy (RT) computed tomography (CT) and symptomatic RP. MATERIALS AND METHODS: Medical records and dose volume histogram data of 60 lung cancer patients from August 2005 to July 2006 were analyzed. All patients were treated with three dimensional (3D) conformal RT of median 56.9 Gy. We assessed the association of symptomatic RP with clinical and dosimetric factors. RESULTS: With a median follow-up of 15.5 months (range, 6.1 to 40.9 months), Radiation Therapy Oncology Group grade > or = 2 RP was observed in 14 patients (23.3%). Five patients (8.3%) died from RP. The interstitial changes in the pre-RT chest CT, mean lung dose (MLD), and V30 significantly predicted RP in multivariable analysis (p=0.009, p < 0.001, and p < 0.001, respectively). MLD, V20, V30, and normal tissue complication probability normal tissue complication probability (NTCP) were associated with the RP grade but less so for grade 5 RP. The risk of RP grade > or = 2, > or = 3, or > or = 4 was higher in the patients with interstitial lung change (grade 2, 15.6% to 46.7%, p=0.03; grade 3, 4.4% to 40%, p=0.002; grade 4, 4.4% to 33.3%, p=0.008). Four of the grade 5 RP patients had diffuse interstitial change in pre-RT CT and received chemoradiotherapy. CONCLUSION: Our study identified diffuse interstitial disease as a significant clinical risk for RP, particularly fatal RP. We showed the usefulness of MLD, V20, V30, and NTCP in predicting the incidence and severity of RP.
Chemoradiotherapy ; Follow-Up Studies ; Humans ; Incidence ; Lung Diseases, Interstitial ; Lung Neoplasms ; Lung* ; Medical Records ; Radiation Pneumonitis* ; Radiotherapy ; Risk Factors* ; Tomography, X-Ray Computed

BACKGROUND: Thyroid incidentalomas detected by 2-deoxy-2-18F-fluoro-D-glucose positron emission tomography/computed tomography (18F-FDG PET/CT) have been reported in 1% to 4% of the population, with a risk of malignancy of 27.8% to 74%. We performed a retrospective review of FDG-avid thyroid incidentalomas in cancer screening subjects and patients with nonthyroid cancer. The risk of malignancy in thyroid incidentaloma and its association with the maximal standardized uptake value (SUVmax) in 18F-FDG PET/CT were evaluated to define the predictor variables in assessing risk of malignancy. METHODS: A total of 2,584 subjects underwent 18F-FDG PET/CT for metastatic evaluation or cancer screening from January 2005 to January 2010. Among them, 36 subjects with FDG-avid thyroid incidentalomas underwent further diagnostic evaluation (thyroid ultrasonography-guided fine needle aspiration cytology [FNAC] or surgical resection). We retrospectively reviewed the database of these subjects. RESULTS: Of the 2,584 subjects who underwent 18F-FDG PET/CT (319 for cancer screening and 2,265 for metastatic evaluation), 52 (2.0%) were identified as having FDG-avid thyroid incidentaloma and cytologic diagnosis was obtained by FNAC in 36 subjects. Of the subjects, 15 were proven to have malignant disease: 13 by FNAC and two by surgical resection. The positive predictive value of malignancy in FDG-avid thyroid incidentaloma was 41.7%. Median SUVmax was higher in malignancy than in benign lesions (4.7 [interquartile range (IQR), 3.4 to 6.0] vs. 2.8 [IQR, 2.6 to 4.0], P=0.001). CONCLUSION: Thyroid incidentalomas found on 18F-FDG PET/CT have a high risk of malignancy, with a positive predictive value of 41.7%. FDG-avid thyroid incidentalomas with higher SUVmax tended to be malignant.
Biopsy, Fine-Needle ; Diagnosis ; Early Detection of Cancer ; Electrons ; Fluorodeoxyglucose F18 ; Humans ; Incidental Findings ; Positron-Emission Tomography ; Positron-Emission Tomography and Computed Tomography ; Prevalence ; Retrospective Studies ; Thyroid Gland* ; Thyroid Neoplasms

PURPOSE: Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is known to suppress the asthmatic responses in a murine model of asthma and to induce dendritic cells (DCs) maturation. Mature DCs play a crucial role in the differentiation of regulatory T cells (Tregs), which are known to regulate allergic inflammatory responses. To investigate whether BCG regulates Tregs in a DCs-mediated manner, we analyzed in a murine model of asthma. METHODS: BALB/c mice were injected intraperitoneally with BCG or intravenously with BCG-stimulated DCs and then sensitized and challenged with ovalbumin (OVA). Mice were analysed for bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR), the influx of inflammatory cells in the bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) fluid, and histopathological changes in the lung. To identify the mechanisms, IgE, IgG1 and IgG2a in the serum were analysed and the CD25+ Tregs in the mice were depleted with anti-CD25 monoclonal antibody (mAb). RESULTS: BCG and the transfer of BCG-stimulated DCs both suppressed all aspects of the asthmatic responses, namely, BHR, the production of total IgE and OVA-specific IgE and IgGs, and pulmonary eosinophilic inflammation. Anti-CD25mAb treatment reversed these effects. CONCLUSIONS: BCG can attenuate the allergic inflammation in a mouse model of asthma by a Tregs-related mechanism that is mediated by DCs.
Animals ; Asthma ; Bacillus* ; Bronchoalveolar Lavage ; Dendritic Cells* ; Eosinophils ; Immunoglobulin E ; Immunoglobulin G ; Inflammation ; Lung ; Mice ; Mycobacterium bovis ; Ovalbumin ; T-Lymphocytes, Regulatory*

Cardiogenic shock after stress-induced cardiomyopathy is very rare and serious, and a reversible, clinical consequence of untreated adrenal insufficiency that is attributable to Sheehan's syndrome. A 53-year-old female presented with confusion, congestive heart failure, and hypotension. Endocrine testing, prior medical history, and brain MRI confirmed the presence of hypopituitarism and secondary adrenal insufficiency owing to undiagnosed Sheehan's syndrome. After glucocorticoid replacement therapy, her cardiac function recovered completely. Stress-induced cardiomyopathy should be considered as a possible cause of unexplained heart failure in patients with Sheehan's syndrome and adrenal insufficiency.
Adrenal Insufficiency ; Brain ; Cardiomyopathies* ; Female ; Heart Failure ; Humans ; Hypopituitarism* ; Hypotension ; Magnetic Resonance Imaging ; Middle Aged ; Shock, Cardiogenic

PURPOSE: Recognition of microbes is important to trigger the innate immune system. Mycolic acid (MA) is a component of the cell walls of mycobacteria such as Mycobacterium bovis Bacillus Calmette-Guerin. MA has immunogenic properties, which may modulate the innate and adaptive immune response. This study aimed to investigate whether a novel synthetic MA (sMA) inhibits allergic inflammatory responses in a mouse model of asthma. METHODS: BALB/c mice were injected intraperitoneally with sMA followed by sensitization and challenge with ovalbumin (OVA). Mice were examined for bronchial hyperresponsiveness (BHR), the influx of inflammatory cells into the lung tissues, histopathological changes in the lungs and CD4+CD25+Foxp3+ T cells in the spleen, and examined the response after the depleting regulatory T cells (Tregs) with an anti-CD25mAb. RESULTS: Treatment of mice with sMA suppressed the asthmatic response, including BHR, bronchoalveolar inflammation, and pulmonary eosinophilic inflammation. Anti-CD25mAb treatment abrogated the suppressive effects of sMA in this mouse model of asthma and totally depleted CD4+CD25+Foxp3+ T cells in the spleen. CONCLUSIONS: sMA attenuated allergic inflammation in a mouse model of asthma, which might be related with CD4+CD25+Foxp3+ T cell.
Adaptive Immunity ; Animals ; Asthma* ; Bacillus ; Cell Wall ; Eosinophils ; Immune System ; Inflammation* ; Lung ; Mice* ; Mycobacterium bovis ; Mycolic Acids* ; Ovalbumin ; Spleen ; T-Lymphocytes ; T-Lymphocytes, Regulatory

BACKGROUND: Introduction of automation instruments for the blood bank is essential in order to reduce inspection error and minimize workload. We compared the results of ABO-RhD blood type and antibody screening tests using the manual method and those using the automation instruments AutoVue Innova (Ortho-Clinical Diagnostics, Raritan, NJ, USA) and QWALYS-3 (DIAGAST, Loos Cedex, France). METHODS: ABO-RhD blood type tests using the slide method, the tube method, and the instruments were performed with 200 selected samples. Antibody screening tests using the Ortho BioVue system (Ortho-Clinical Diagnostics, Raritan, NJ, USA), which is used in our laboratory, and the two instruments were performed with 188 specimens and 12 antibody positive samples that were kept in the laboratory. We evaluated the concordance rate of the results, applying CLSI guideline EP12-A2. RESULTS: The concordance rate of ABO-RhD blood type results between the manual methods and the two instruments was 100%. On antibody screening tests, a concordance rate of 100% was observed between the manual method and AutoVue Innova, which uses the gel card manufactured by the company making the gel card used for the manual method. However, using QWALYS-3 in performance of antibody screening tests, the concordance rate was 97.5%, because of discordance in five specimens. CONCLUSION: The concordance rate of ABO-RhD blood type by use of two automation instruments was 100%, however, that of the antibody screening test was 97.5%. Thus, there was a difference in positive rate on the antibody screening test, depending on the instrument. Therefore, introduction of an instrument, considering the pros and cons for each instrument, is necessary. In addition, further discussion of standardized guidelines for quality control is needed.
Automation ; Blood Banks ; Cephalosporins ; Mass Screening ; Quality Control

Follicular dendritic cell sarcoma (FDCS) is a rare malignancy arising from the antigen-presenting cells in the lymph node and extranodal tissue. We describe a 31-year-old male patient who presented with a swelling of the left parapharynx. The radiologic findings showed a 4.7x4.5x1.9 cm-sized, ill-defined mass in the left parapharyngeal space. A fine-needle aspiration cytology was performed and it showed scattered, irregular, cohesive clusters of tumor cells with a spindle-to-ovoid shape with irregular contours in a background of lymphocytes. Based on these findings, a diagnosis of spindle cell neoplasm was made. The surgically resected tumor was composed of elongated, ovoid or polygonal cells showing positive immunohistochemistry for CD21, CD23, and CD35. Postoperatively, the residual tumor was observed to undergo a rapidly growth. There is an overlap in the cytologic and histologic findings between FDCS of the parapharynx and other tumors. Pathologists should therefore be aware of its characteristics not only to provide an accurate diagnosis but also to recommend the appropriate clinical management.
Male ; Humans