BACKGROUND: Postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) commonly occur after general anesthesia, especially in women. In this study, we evaluated the antiemetic efficacy of propofol administered at the end of surgery in highly susceptible patients undergoing a laparoscopy-assisted vaginal hysterectomy. METHODS: A total of 107 women undergoing a laparoscopy-assisted vaginal hysterectomy under general anesthesia were enrolled for this prospective, double-blind, randomized study. Fifteen minutes before the end of surgery, all patients received 50 microg fentanyl and 1 of following 3 doses; 0.5 mg/kg of propofol (propofol 0.5 group), 1 mg/kg of propofol (propofol 1.0 group), and normal saline (control group). All patients received intravenous patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Emergence time, a visual analog scale for pain and nausea, duration of postanesthesia care unit (PACU) stay, and frequency of antiemetic use were recorded at 0-2, 2-24, and 24-48 hours postoperatively. RESULTS: The incidence of nausea significantly lower in the propofol 0.5 and propofol 1.0 groups than in the control group (12.1 vs 14.7 vs 40%). During the first postoperative 2 hours, antiemetics were less frequently administered in the propofol 0.5 and propofol 1.0 groups than in the control group (3.0 vs 5.9 vs 22.5%). Emergence time was slightly longer in the propofol 0.5 and propofol 1.0 groups than in the control group, but there was no significant difference in PACU stay time was observed between the 3 groups. CONCLUSIONS: The results of this study suggest that low-dose propofol administration at the end of surgery may effectively reduce the incidence of PONV within 2 hours postoperatively in highly susceptible women undergoing a laparoscopiy-assisted vaginal hysterectomy and receiving opioid-based PCA.
Analgesia, Patient-Controlled ; Anesthesia, General ; Antiemetics* ; Female ; Fentanyl ; Humans ; Hysterectomy, Vaginal* ; Incidence ; Laparoscopy ; Nausea ; Passive Cutaneous Anaphylaxis ; Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting ; Propofol* ; Prospective Studies ; Visual Analog Scale

Preparation of a pure autoantigen by way of recombinant DNA technology has an important value in an accurate diagnosis or prognosis of an autoimmune disease. BCOADC-E2 subunit, a mitochondrial protein, has been known to be the autoantigen of primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), a chronic autoimmune liver disease, as well as idiopathic dilated cardiomypathy (IDCM), a chronic autoimmune heart disease. Recombinant form of this molecule had been expressed in E. coli but with low yield and severe degradation. Furthermore, sera from IDCM patients failed to recognized BCOADC-E2 molecule produced in prokaryotic expression system. In this study, a recombinant bovine BCOADC-E2 fusion protein has been expressed in insect cells using baculovirus expression system and analyzed anti-BCOADC-E2 reactivity in sera from patients with PBC or with IDCM. Optimal production of the recombinant fusion protein has been achieved at 20 multiplicity of infection (MOI), and the protein was affinity-purified using metal-binding resins. The affinity-purified BCOADC-E2 protein was successfully recognized by sera from PBC patients, but not by sera from IDCM patients suggesting that the different auto-immune response against BCOADC-E2 is needed to be elucidated in terms of epitope recognition.
Acetyltransferases/metabolism ; Acetyltransferases/immunology ; Acetyltransferases/genetics* ; Animal ; Baculoviridae/genetics ; Cardiomyopathy, Congestive/immunology ; Cattle ; Human ; Immune Sera ; Insects/cytology* ; Ketone Oxidoreductases/metabolism ; Ketone Oxidoreductases/immunology* ; Ketone Oxidoreductases/genetics* ; Liver Cirrhosis, Biliary/immunology ; Multienzyme Complexes/metabolism ; Multienzyme Complexes/immunology* ; Multienzyme Complexes/genetics* ; Protein Engineering/methods ; Recombinant Proteins/isolation & purification ; Recombinant Proteins/immunology ; Recombinant Proteins/genetics*

BACKGROUND: Intravenous administration of rocuronium induces intense pain in most patients (60-100%). This could be harmful during anesthesia induction because of the unintended reflex movement of an unconscious patient in response to the pain. Previous studies have reported that remifentanil effectively reduces rocuronium-induced pain and withdrawal movements. This study was designed to evaluate the EC50 and EC95 of remifentanil to prevent withdrawal movements in children. METHODS: We enrolled a total of 171 pediatric patients scheduled for general anesthesia in this study. Remifentanil was administrated by target-controlled infusion. Effect-site target concentrations ranged from 0.5 to 3.0 ng/ml. At each concentration, experiments were repeated in 10-20 patients. Propofol 2 mg/kg and rocuronium 0.9 mg/kg were administrated after equilibration of plasma and effect-site target remifentanil concentration. The withdrawal movements were graded on a 4-point scale. The EC50 and EC95 of remifentanil to prevent rocuronium-induced withdrawal movements were determined by using a logistic regression model. RESULTS: The logistic regression model showed that the probability of preventing rocuronium-induced withdrawal movement was as follows: exp (-3.49 + 2.07 x remifentanil concentration) / (1 + exp [-3.49 + 2.07 x remifentanil concentration]). EC50 and EC95 were 1.69 ng/ml (95% confidence intervals [CIs], 1.42-1.87) and 3.11 ng/ml (95% CIs, 2.79-3.72), respectively. CONCLUSIONS: Administration of remifentanil at an effect-site target concentration of 3.1 ng/ml could effectively prevent rocuronium-induced withdrawal movements.
Administration, Intravenous ; Anesthesia ; Anesthesia, General ; Child* ; Humans ; Logistic Models ; Pediatrics ; Plasma ; Propofol ; Reflex

Objective: To identify the relationship between dysphagia, dietary level, and pulmonary function in post-stroke patients. Methods: Thirty-six post-stroke patients with dysphagia, who were hospitalized from June 2017 to October 2017 in the Department of Rehabilitation Medicine at a tertiary hospital, were analyzed retrospectively. The video-fluoroscopic swallowing study (VFSS) and videofluoroscopic dysphagia scale (VDS) were used to assess dysphagia. The vital capacity (VC) and peak cough flow (PCF) were used to assess the pulmonary function. Upon admission, the patients were divided into three groups according to their dietary level (tube feeding, dysphagia diet, and general diet). The correlation between dysphagia and pulmonary function was analyzed using an independent t-test test with the optimal points, and the relationship between the diet level and pulmonary function was evaluated using a one-way analysis of the variance. Results: Significant correlations between the pulmonary function and sub-items of VDS were found in “oral transit time” with VC, “vallecullar residue” and “aspiration” with PCF, and “triggering of pharyngeal swallow”, “VDS total score” with VC and PCF. The dietary levels upon admission had a significant correlation with VC and PCF. The VC among groups divided according to three diet levels showed statistically significant differences. Conclusion This study revealed the relationship between the pulmonary function and dysphagia in post-stroke patients. Moreover, the pulmonary function correlated with dietary level, even though it was not confirmed that it affected dietary levels. The clinical importance of the pulmonary function in post-stroke patients with dysphagia should be emphasized. In addition, a large-scale study is needed to determine the correlation between the pulmonary function and swallowing difficulty

The STANDARD™ M10 severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus-2 (SARS-CoV-2) assay (M10 assay) (SD Biosensor Inc., Suwon, Korea) is a rapid, fully-automated, cartridgetype molecular diagnostic assay that detects SARS-CoV-2 RNA using primers and probes for each target gene (ORF1ab gene, E gene). This study evaluated its performance by assessing its concordance with the approved SARS-CoV-2 real-time PCR assay. Tests were performed on 80 nasopharyngeal samples. The sensitivity and specificity of the M10 assay were 100%.The M10 assay effectively diagnosed SARS-CoV-2 infection, and it was comparable to the approved SARS-CoV-2 real-time PCR assay. It is a viable point-of-care test due to its short turnaround time.

Primary cutaneous CD30-positive, anaplastic large cell lymphoma (ALCL) is a rare cutaneous peripheral T cell lymphoma with a favorable prognosis. ALCL is characterized by a solitary or localized skin tumor composed of sheets of atypical lymphoid cells with pleomorphic or anaplastic nuclei. Herein we report a 67-year-old woman presented with tender nodules and severely pruritic numerous eruptive papules. Histopathologic examination revealed dense non-epidermotrophic infiltrates of atypical large cells with round, oval or irregularly shaped nuclei and abundant cytoplasm. Immunohistochemical studies demonstrated that most lymphoid cells in the dermis and subcutis were positive for CD30 and CD45RO, and negative for CD20 and CD56.
Aged ; Cytoplasm ; Dermis ; Female ; Humans ; Lymphocytes ; Lymphoma, Large-Cell, Anaplastic* ; Lymphoma, T-Cell, Peripheral ; Prognosis ; Skin

Vibrio vulnificus infection can lead to the rapid expansion of cellulitis or sepsis and can be lethal. Vibrio vulnificus is transmitted through seawater or ingestion of raw or undercooked shellfish. We experienced an uncommon case of death due to Vibrio sepsis, which was confirmed by autopsy. A 56-year-old man who was a sailor was found dead in a fishing boat. Autopsy was performed 3 days later. External examination revealed a few blisters and erythematous lesions on both legs. Internal examination revealed a fatty liver and edema of the legs. The skin lesions on the legs showed blisters that extended from the epidermis to the dermis, accompanied by massive acute inflammation in the dermis and subcutaneous tissue with multinuclear giant cells, as noted on the histologic examination. Vibrio vulnificus was isolated from postmortem blood and subcutaneous tissue of the leg. To the best of our knowledge, this is the first autopsy case in Korea in which Vibrio vulnificus was isolated from postmortem blood. Herein, we present a case of sepsis due to Vibrio vulnificus which was confirmed by autopsy, pathological findings, and postmortem microbiological culture.
Autopsy* ; Blister ; Cellulitis ; Dermis ; Eating ; Edema ; Epidermis ; Fatty Liver ; Giant Cells ; Humans ; Inflammation ; Korea ; Leg ; Middle Aged ; Military Personnel ; Pathology ; Seawater ; Sepsis* ; Shellfish ; Ships ; Skin ; Subcutaneous Tissue ; Vibrio ; Vibrio vulnificus*

BACKGROUND: Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor add-on therapy is a new option for patients with inadequately controlled type 2 diabetes who are taking combined metformin and sulfonylurea (SU). We evaluated the efficacy and safety of this triple therapy and the characteristics of rapid responders and hypoglycemia-prone patients. METHODS: We included 807 patients with type 2 diabetes who were prescribed a newly added DPP-4 inhibitor to ongoing metformin and SU in 2009 to 2011. Glycemia and other metabolic parameters at baseline, 12, 24, and 52 weeks, as well as episodes of hypoglycemia were analyzed. Rapid responders were defined as patients with > or =25% reduction in glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) within 12 weeks. RESULTS: At baseline, while on the submaximal metformin and SU combination, the mean HbA1c level was 8.4%. Twelve weeks after initiation of DPP-4 inhibitor add-on, 269 patients (34.4%) achieved an HbA1c level < or =7%. Sixty-six patients (8.2%, 47 men) were rapid responders. The duration of diabetes was shorter in rapid responders, and their baseline fasting plasma glucose (FPG), HbA1c, C-peptide, and homeostasis model assessment of insulin resistance were significantly higher. Patients who experienced hypoglycemia after taking DPP-4 inhibitor add-on were more likely to be female, to have a lower body weight and lower triglyceride and FPG levels, and to have higher homeostasis model assessment of beta-cells. CONCLUSION: An oral hypoglycemic triple agent combination including a DPP-4 inhibitor was effective in patients with uncontrolled diabetes. Proactive dose reduction of SU should be considered when a DPP-4 inhibitor is added for rapid responders and hypoglycemia-prone patients.
Blood Glucose ; Body Weight ; C-Peptide ; Diabetes Mellitus, Type 2 ; Dipeptidyl-Peptidase IV Inhibitors ; Fasting ; Female ; Hemoglobin A, Glycosylated ; Homeostasis ; Humans ; Hypoglycemia ; Insulin Resistance ; Metformin* ; Sulfonylurea Compounds ; Triglycerides

We report here the cases of two females with Graves' disease who developed insulin autoimmune syndrome after treatment with methimazole. The patients exhibited a sudden altered mental state after treatment with methimazole for approximately 4 weeks. Patients had hypoglycemia with serum glucose below 70 mg/dL, and laboratory findings showed both high levels of serum insulin and high titers of insulin autoantibodies. The two women had never been exposed to insulin or oral antidiabetic agents, and there was no evidence of insulinoma in imaging studies. After glucose loading, serum glucose, and total insulin levels increased abnormally. One of the patient was found to have HLA-DRB1*0406, which is known to be strongly associated with methimazole-induced insulin autoimmune syndrome. After discontinuation of methimazole, hypoglycemic events disappeared within 1 month. Insulin autoantibody titer and insulin levels decreased within 5 months and there was no further development of hypoglycemic events. We present these cases with a review of the relevant literature.
Autoantibodies ; Female ; Glucose ; Graves Disease ; HLA-DRB1 Chains ; Humans ; Hypoglycemia ; Hypoglycemic Agents ; Insulin ; Insulinoma ; Methimazole

PURPOSE: Piezolith 3000(R) is one of the 3rd generation lithotriptors that uses double layered piezoelectric shock waves for the treatment of urinary stone. We evaluated the safety and effectiveness of the Piezolith 3000(R) lithotriptor and we compared it with the previous Piezolith 2300(R) lithotriptor. MATERIALS AND METHODS: We reviewed the records of 500 patients with urinary calculi who had been treated with extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL) from January 2002 to December 2003, but complete follow up data was available for only 385 cases. The distribution of stones, the success rate and the number of ESWL sessions according to the size and location of the stones, the auxiliary procedures and their complications were analyzed. RESULTS: There were 172 cases with renal stone and 213 cases with ureteral calculi. The success rate, defined as being stone-free or having asymptomatic residual fragments measuring 3mm or less, was 82.0% for the renal stones and 93.0% for the ureteral calculi. The overall success rate for all the calculi was 88.1%. The mean number of sessions was 3.6 for the renal stones and 2.3 for the ureteral calculi. The overall mean number of sessions was 2.8. All the treatments were performed without analgesia or sedation except for one child (5 years old) who was given oral sedation. Any serious complications or side effects such as renal hematoma were not observed. CONCLUSIONS: The Piezolith 3000(R) lithotriptor allows shorter treatment sessions and it has more comfortable positioning tools to focus on the stone. It also has the advantage of being anesthesia free and a lower morbidity rate (e.g. pain). Yet we couldn't find any difference of the success rate between the previous standard piezo-system and the Piezolith 3000 .
Analgesia ; Anesthesia ; Calculi* ; Child ; Follow-Up Studies ; Hematoma ; Humans ; Lithotripsy ; Shock* ; Ureteral Calculi ; Urinary Calculi ; Urinary Tract*